Quiz-summary
0 of 1 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
Information
USMLE Step 1 Questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Pathophysiology 0%
-
Question:
A 27-year-old HIV positive man comes for a re-visit after a screening urinalysis reveals strikingly elevated protein levels. The patient is currently reluctant to start antiretroviral therapy, though he is taking prophylactic antibiotics. He has a distant history of injection drug use. On exam, the patient has mild ankle edema and is slightly cachectic, but otherwise appears well. A new urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria without any hematuria or red cell casts. A serum albumin is 2.3 g. Which disease process is most likely to explain this patient’s proteinuria?
Correct Answer: B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
This patient’s clinical description is that of nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria without hematuria; other manifestations may include edema, thrombosis, infection, low serum albumin, coagulopathy, and hyponatremia.
Patients with HIV and no other diseases are particularly likely to have a variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) called HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN). This is especially true among black patients.
Minimal change disease is the most common nephrotic glomerular disease in children.
Membranous nephropathy is the most common nephrotic glomerula disease in adults, especially those with lupus or Hepatitis B.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and IgA nephropathy both result in nephritic syndrome, characterized by microscopic hematuria.
- 1
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 1
1. Question
Category: PathophysiologyA 27-year-old HIV positive man comes for a re-visit after a screening urinalysis reveals strikingly elevated protein levels. The patient is currently reluctant to start antiretroviral therapy, though he is taking prophylactic antibiotics. He has a distant history of injection drug use. On exam, the patient has mild ankle edema and is slightly cachectic, but otherwise appears well. A new urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria without any hematuria or red cell casts. A serum albumin is 2.3 g. Which disease process is most likely to explain this patient’s proteinuria?
Correct
Incorrect